Why did Spain not occupy Portugal in history?

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First, Portugal embraced the Pope's thigh after independence, and then directly formulated the jurisprudence of a Portuguese kingdom. In other words, it is difficult for the Spanish king to find a reasonable reason to claim the Portuguese king. (Unless it is a door-to-door system of 1580)

Second, Spain is also like a United Nations. The jurisprudence of this Spanish kingdom was founded in the19th century. Aragon and Castilla play their own games. The unruly people in Catalonia 1640 did not want to pay taxes, and they also created a Spanish rebellion.

Third, 1640, Portugal became independent with British thighs. What can the Spanish army do if it can't defeat the British-Portuguese Coalition forces? I am desperate, too.

By the way, it is said that the Anglo-Portuguese alliance signed by 1373 is still valid. Even in the golden age, Spain could do nothing about Britain. It's easier to play Portugal than England.

4. What is Spain doing in the most glorious sixteenth century? Fight Dutch Protestants, fight English Protestants, take part in the French religious civil war, and fight Ottoman pagans. Fighting all over Europe every day, in fact, Spain did unify Portugal at 1580. Then Spain, which fought for a century, got rid of it completely after the Thirty Years' War and entered the stage of being hanged by France every day. After the Bourbon royal family was replaced, the whole country was beaten out of the water./kloc-Britain in the 8th century was not provoked by Spain. At least add France, the Netherlands and a group of colonial unruly people who want to rebel.

Spain heads Portugal?

Fifth, after the Napoleonic Wars, it was basically impossible to directly eat a European country with a Portuguese volume, regardless of Britain and nationalism.

But Portugal has already established its own identity.