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Are Greeks considered descendants of the Byzantine Empire?
So the Romans can speak Greek and Latin. The word Byzantium was invented by a German historian in 1555, so the Romans were never called Byzantines because the empire ended in 1453 (some people say it was 146 1).
After the capital of Roman Empire moved to Constantinople, it became a Greek-speaking empire. In 622 AD, this language "officially" became Greek. Italy was the capital of the Roman Empire before it moved to Constantinople. Before that, the empire established by the Greeks was far farther than the territory of the Roman Empire. The Greeks settled as far away as India and settled in the kingdom of Bactria, the Seleucid Empire in Central Asia and Syria.
So when the Romans entered this area, they had settled in the area where the Greeks had lived for more than 65,438+0,000 years. Looking at the national origin of emperors after 330 AD, we find that they are mainly Greeks. As the Ottoman Empire attacked the empire from the east, most of the population retreated to the west, and many people immigrated to Italy. Therefore, around 1 100, most people in southern Italy spoke Greek. Even today, there are Greek speakers in Italy.
The last emperor of Constantinople Empire was the tyrant of Moria, whose capital was located 7 kilometers away from Sparta, Greece. He reigned for four years, and Constantinople fell in 1453. Since 330 AD, the Greeks have been the core of the empire. I know it sounds strange. The Greeks brought the Romans, but they thought they were Romans. Their language, Greek as we know it, is called Roman. The Greeks born in Asia Minor 50 years ago called themselves Romans, and the Turks used the word rum to describe them. Rum refers to the Romans.
There is a Byzantium here, which is a colony of ancient Greece and later Byzantine Empire. Byzantine Empire is another name for the Eastern Roman Empire after the collapse of the Roman Empire. The first is Greek, and the second is Roman, which is made up of many nationalities. One of them is a Greek.
In the later period, the Greeks were citizens of this empire, but at the same time they were occupied by this empire! So the answer is no, the Greeks are not descendants of the Byzantine Empire, because the Byzantine Empire is the Roman Empire.
At that time, the Greeks did not have "life time" in the Middle Ages! They suffered under the cruel and corrupt empire! There is evidence that during the Ottoman invasion, many Greeks and Ottomans fought against the empire together! The use of Greek is the same as that of English today. Unifying different races does not mean that it is the Greek Empire! On the other hand, Christianity was rudely imposed on the Greeks for political reasons at a certain period, so the whole empire only believed in one religion.
Greeks believe in their own gods and are not considered a good part of the empire! In fact, Christianity attacked Greek ideals and ideas! Greece was occupied at that time, not the master of the Byzantine Empire! This may sound a little excessive, but in a sense, we were slaves at that time, even less than during the Ottoman rule, because the Ottomans didn't care much about religious issues, and their main interest was to tax the occupied areas.
This is one of the reasons why people spent 400 years resisting the Turks! There are many myths about the church's opposition to Turks. Almost the opposite! This is the theme of Kazante Zakis's masterpiece Ohristos Knastavroonet, which describes the connection between the Greek church and the Ottoman Empire and destroys the "heroic" resistance, which ... does not exist! The revolution was organized by some ordinary people and some people who were educated abroad. If the Greeks had left all this to the church, we would speak Turkish today. No, the Greeks had nothing to do with the cruel and religiously controlled Byzantine Empire.
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