Why is it ridiculous to say that "the United States slaughtered tens of millions of Indians"

When attacking American history, many people often claim that the United States "eliminated" Indians, and their so-called evidence comes from such data: it is said that there were tens of millions of Indians in North America before the arrival of westerners, and only one million remained in 1998, so it can be concluded that the United States eliminated a large number of Indians in the westward movement. The second so-called "proof" is an American law at the end of 18: an Indian's scalp can be exchanged for a bonus of 50-75 dollars, so they believe that the American government has planned the "extinction" of Indians.

But as long as you analyze it carefully, you will find that this so-called data can't stand scrutiny: as we all know, population growth is the level of developed productivity. Before westerners arrived in America, 80% of North American Indians depended on fishing, hunting and gathering for a living, and the remaining 20% relied on very primitive animal husbandry, aquaculture and slash-and-burn farming. This level of productivity is difficult to feed, let alone tens of millions of people, even millions. China had world-leading agricultural technology in ancient times, but its population hovered at tens of millions. How did Indian aborigines with few bronzes come into contact with the population of China?

Second, the emergence of cities is the result of population growth. If there are tens of millions of people in North America (some people say it is 30-50 million), then Columbus, Amerigo and others should see countless villages, endless farmland, dense roads and huge cities after landing. But the reality is that in North America at that time (not counting the Aztec Empire in the south), even the capital of the tribal alliance had only a few thousand people, and there were no decent big cities at all. On the contrary, there are many no-man's land, such as Louisiana. If there were millions or tens of millions of people in North America, this would never happen. Therefore, around 1500, the total population of North America will not exceed one million, and there will not be tens of millions of indigenous people.

Third, the American government did issue a decree offering a reward for killing Indians, but when did that happen? At that time, most of the thirteen States in North America had conflicts with Indians, and the land conflict was the most serious one. Compared with the Indians, the military strength of the American government is not superior, so we have to adopt this kind of law to alleviate the unfavorable situation of confrontation. In the later westward movement, Americans gradually occupied the western states by relying on their economic advantages and squeezed out the Indians again and again, instead of solving the problem by mass slaughter. On the contrary, savage Indian tribes like scalping white people very much. At present, the proportion of Indians in the total population of the United States is very small, which is caused by the influx of immigrants into the United States in 19 and the 20th century, and its absolute number has actually increased.

Therefore, the so-called "American massacre of Indians" can not be called "Holocaust" at all, but should be called "War between the United States and Indian tribes" (and it is not a civil war, because Indians did not admit that they were American citizens at that time), such as the Crick War. It is ridiculous to call it "slaughter".

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