Why didn't China colonize overseas during the Ming Dynasty?

Since the Yuan Dynasty, the expansion of China, based on 18 provinces in the Han Dynasty, has a colonial nature-localization was achieved through military immigration. Among them, Yunnan, Xinjiang and Northeast China all came in this way.

At the same time, I noticed that the population of thirteen provinces in China was 200 million in the Ming Dynasty. Did the Ming Dynasty digest the market of 200 million people? If you want to digest it, Dashun Daqing will be fine!

At the same time, China has been monopolizing iron products since ancient times. Silk, tea and porcelain were all high value-added commodity production technologies in the15 ~17th century (even before the middle of19th century), and the domestic sales have not been fully developed, so of course, I don't have to bear the risk of overseas investment at all, just wait for the inflow of overseas silver.

Of course, it must be pointed out that China is not an individual who has not colonized or even founded a country overseas in his own name. But as it turns out, none of them can form an effective connection with the central government of our country-this may be related to their personal ability, but in fact, they have not and cannot form a new productive relationship and create a new world in a new world through a new revolution.