Common basic knowledge for nurse interviews

>E. Atrioventricular block

Answer: B

13. White blood cell differential count, neutrophils (including rod-shaped nuclei, lobulated nuclei) should be accounted for normally

A. 0.5%-1%

B. 50%-75%

C. 3%-8%

D. 80 %-85%

E. 20%-40%

Answer: B

14. The normal reference value range of adult male hemoglobin is

B. 140-170g/L

C. 110-150g/L

D. 170-200g/ L

E, 120-160g/L

Answer: E

15. The disease that does not significantly increase the erythrocyte sedimentation rate is

A , Angina pectoris

B. Late stage of malignant tumor

C. Acute myocardial infarction

D. Active tuberculosis

E. Chronic nephritis< /p>

Answer: A

16. The preservative in the urine protein quantitative specimen bottle is

A. 5ml of toluene

B. Dilute hydrochloric acid 5ml

C. Formaldehyde 5ml

D. Carbonic acid 5ml

E. Concentrated hydrochloric acid 5ml

Answer: A

A. Obstructive jaundice

B. Acute hemolysis

C. Hepatocellular jaundice

D. Kidney tumor

E. Advanced filariasis

Answer: B

18. Which of the following T waves is abnormal

A. Lead I is upright

B. Lead V5 is inverted

C. Lead aVR is inverted

D. Lead aVR is flat

E, V1 lead bidirectional

Answer: B

19. The air purification in the operating room with modern equipment mainly relies on

A , Ozone disinfection

B. Laminar flow device and high-efficiency air filter

C. Lactic acid disinfection

D. Ultraviolet disinfection

E. Formaldehyde disinfection

Answer: B

20. The daily invisible water loss of a normal person is

A. 200ml

B. 850ml

C. 400ml

D. 1000ml

E. 1200ml

Answer: B

21. The basic pathological changes of various types of shock are

A. Decreased blood pressure

B. Decreased central venous pressure

C. Decreased pulse pressure

E. Sharp decrease in effective circulating blood volume

Answer: E

22. In order to prevent acute renal failure, which kind of trauma The patient should be given alkaline solution intravenously to alkalinize the urine

A. Forearm laceration

B. Renal contusion

C. Thigh crush injury< /p>

D. Rib fractures

E. Scalp avulsion

Answer: C

23. What is most likely to happen after cardiac arrest The secondary pathological changes are

A. Pulmonary edema

B. Acute renal failure

C. Acute liver necrosis

D. Cerebral hypoxia and cerebral edema

E. Myocardial anoxic injury

Answer: D

24. The fastest way for the body to regulate acid-base balance is

A. Regulation of the kidneys

B. Blood buffer system

C. Regulation of the lungs

D. Neuroendocrine system

Regulation

E. Extracellular ion exchange

Answer: B

25. Which of the following is not an open injury

A. Scrub Injury

B. Contusion

C. Stabbing

D. Cut

E. Firearm injury

Answer: B

26. The main cause of thyroid crisis is

A. Excessive squeezing of the thyroid gland during surgery

B. Insufficient preoperative preparation Requirements

C. Insufficient gland removal

D. Excessive gland removal

E. Excessive tension during surgery

Answer: B

27. Which is the most important health guidance for patients discharged from breast cancer surgery?

A. Continue functional exercise

B. Strengthen nutrition

　C. Frequent self-examination

D. Participate in sports activities

E. Avoid pregnancy within five years

Answer: E

28. The most susceptible areas to infection during the development of breast cancer are

A. Lungs

B. Liver

C. Axillary lymph nodes

D. Subclavian lymph nodes

E. Parasternal lymph nodes

Answer: C

29. Which of the following organ injuries has the main clinical manifestations of peritonitis?

A. Liver

B. Spleen

C. Pancreas

D. Intestine

E. Kidney

Answer: D

30. The main difference between primary peritonitis and secondary peritonitis is

A. Whether there are primary lesions in the abdominal cavity

p>

B. Nature of abdominal pain

C. Degree of abdominal muscle tension

D. Type of pathogenic bacteria

E. Whether there is visceral damage

Answer: A

31. Which nursing measure is the most important during non-surgical treatment of perforated ulcer

A. Semi-recumbent position

B. Infusion

C. Gastrointestinal decompression

D. Application of antibiotics

E. Prepare for surgery

Answer: C

32. The most common sites for gastric and duodenal ulcers combined with bleeding are

A. The greater curvature of the stomach or the posterior wall of the duodenum

B. The lesser curvature of the stomach or the posterior wall of the duodenum

C. The greater curvature of the stomach or the anterior wall of the duodenum

D. The lesser curvature of the stomach or the anterior wall of the duodenum

E. Gastric body

Answer: B

33. The mechanism of acute appendicitis abdominal pain starting from around the umbilicus or upper abdomen is

A. Gastrointestinal dysfunction

B. Visceral nerve reflex

C. Somatic nerve reflex

D. The appendix is ??not in a fixed position

E. Appendiceal wall spasm

Answer: B

34. Intestinal obstruction caused by peritonitis belongs to

A. Mechanical strangulating intestinal obstruction

B. Mechanical simple intestinal obstruction

C. Paralytic intestinal obstruction

D. Vascular intestinal obstruction

E. Spasm Sexual intestinal obstruction

Answer: C

35. Which anal disease can be caused by portal hypertension

A. Anal fissure

B , Anal fistula

C. Rectal prolapse

D. Hemorrhoids

E. Rectal polyps

Answer: D

A. Hyperthermia

B. Nutritional imbalance

C. Potential complications Symptom: shock

D. Potential oral mucosal damage

E. Anxiety

Answer: C

37

, The most commonly used method to treat fractures is

A. Open reduction and internal fixation

B. Manual reduction and external fixation

C. Percutaneous needle insertion External bone fixation

D. Manual reduction and internal fixation

E. Continuous traction

Answer: B

38. Joint dislocation The characteristic manifestations are

A. Swelling

B. Blood stasis

C. Elastic fixation

D. Pain

E. Limited activity

Answer: C

39. The reliable way to diagnose gastric cancer is

A. Gastrointestinal barium meal

C. Gastric B-ultrasound

D. Fiberoptic gastroscopy

E. Gastric CT examination

Answer : D

40. The main symptoms of high small intestinal obstruction besides abdominal pain are

A. Obvious abdominal distension

B. Frequent vomiting

C. There is a drum sound upon percussion

D. Stop defecation and exhaustion

E. Abdominal mass

Answer: B

41. The wrong myths about cervical cancer are

A. It occurs at the junction of squamous-columnar epithelium at the external cervical ostium

B. It is related to early marriage, early childbearing and multiple births and cervical erosion

C. Mostly squamous carcinoma

D. Cancer prevention screening is required at least once every 2 years

E. Surgical treatment is suitable for carcinoma in situ and early invasive cancer

Answer: D

42. Which of the following has nothing to do with the placement of an intrauterine device

A. Increased menstrual flow

B. Weight gain< /p>

C. Backache and abdominal pain

D. Uterine perforation

E. Infection

Answer: B

43 , An important sign of the onset of female puberty is

A. High pitch of voice

B. Full breasts

C. Increased subcutaneous fat

D. Generation of armpit hair

E. Menarche

Answer: E

44. The wrong statement about senile vaginitis is

A. The vaginal epithelium becomes thinner and the glycogen content decreases

B. It is often a mixed infection of general purulent bacteria

C. The vagina can be flushed with alkaline solution

E. If there is bloody leucorrhea, a cancer prevention examination is required

Answer: C

45 , Regarding primary dysmenorrhea, the wrong statement is

A. It is more common in unmarried or non-pregnant women

B. It occurs a few hours before menstruation

C. Often occurs 6-12 months after menarche

D. accompanied by pale complexion and cold sweats

E. Many reproductive organs have organic diseases

Answer: E

46. Which of the following is consistent with the motor and behavioral development of 3-month-old children

A. Can sit

B. Can crawl

C. Able to stand up by supporting armpits

D. Hold toys with hands

E. Able to raise head when in an upright position

Answer: E < /p>

47. Pathological crying in infants and young children is more common

A. Abdominal pain and headache

B. Neonatal intracranial hemorrhage

C. Otitis media

D. Skin disease

E. Hunger

Answer: A

48. Newborns can get it from their mothers, but 3 -The antibodies that gradually disappear after 5 months are

A. Immune cells

B. Complement

C. IgG

D. IgM

E, IgA

Answer: C

49.

The common causes of food fear among only children are

A. Iron deficiency anemia

B. Infectious hepatitis

C. Gastroenteritis

D. Intestinal malformation

E. Mental factors

Answer: E

50. Mix 4 spoons of whole milk powder into whole milk Water should be added

A. 4 spoons

B. 8 spoons

C. 12 spoons

D. 16 spoons

E. 20 spoons

Answer: D

51. The anemia that is likely to occur in children who are fed solely on goat milk for a long time is

A. Leukemia

B. Iron deficiency anemia

C. Hemolytic anemia

D. Aplastic anemia

E. Nutritional megaloblastic red blood cells Anemia

Answer: E Medicine

52. The setting of pediatric outpatient clinics should not include

A. Pre-diagnosis room

B. Waiting room< /p>

C. Isolation clinic

D. Examination room

E. Pantry

Answer: E

53. The commonly used liquid for cleaning the oral cavity of thrush is

A. 3% hydrogen peroxide solution

B. 0.1% Rivanol solution

C. 2% sodium bicarbonate solution

D. Normal saline

E. Warm water

Answer: C

54. Neonatal cranium Typical symptoms of internal bleeding are

A. Difficulty in breathing and inability to suck

B. Excitement first and then inhibition

C. Hardness and swelling all over the body

D. Body temperature does not rise

E. Breast rejection

Answer: B

55. The main cause of rickets is

A , Lack of vitamin A

B. Lack of thyroxine

C. Lack of calcium in food

D. Lack of vitamin D

E. Improper proportion of calcium and phosphorus in food

Answer: D Common basic knowledge for nurse interviews 2

1. If the lack of methionine in the diet causes insufficient synthesis of VLDL by the body, fat accumulation will occur in liver cells. Causes fatty liver. The main reason for this result may be (). "Biochemistry"

A. Decreased carnitine synthesis

B. Decreased creatine synthesis

C. Decreased protein synthesis

D .Reduced lecithin synthesis

2. Male patient, 50 years old, developed arthritis symptoms and urinary tract stones in recent years. Symptoms worsened when he ate more meat. What are the metabolic pathways in the body involved in this patient’s condition? The disease is ( ). "Biochemistry"

A. Sugar metabolism, diabetes

B. Lipid metabolism, gout

C. Purine nucleotide metabolism, gout

D. Amino acid metabolism, arthritis

3. The patient, male, 55 years old, was admitted to hospital and tested for blood ammonia of 165umol/L and ALT of 155U/L. The commonly used clinical method for colon dialysis is ( ). "Pharmacology"

A. Weakly acidic dialysate

B. Strongly acidic dialysate

C. Weakly alkaline dialysate

D. Strongly alkaline dialysate

4. The main cation that maintains the osmotic pressure of intracellular fluid is (). "Physiology"

A.Mg2+

B.Fe2+

C.K+

D.Na+

5. Among the following items, the structure that does not pass through the diaphragm is ( ). "Anatomy"

A. Esophagus

B. Superior vena cava

C. Aorta

D. Vagus nerve

6. Epinephrine must be administered by injection, and the reasons why oral administration is ineffective do not include ().

2016.7.30-Hunan Changsha County Health and Family Planning Bureau Recruitment Examination-Nursing Paper-48-"Pharmacology"

A. Epinephrine is a catecholamine and should be destroyed by alkaline solutions in the gastrointestinal tract

C. Adrenaline can be rapidly metabolized and inactivated by monoamine oxidase in the intestinal wall and liver cells in the body

D. Adrenaline greatly stimulates the gastrointestinal tract and can cause severe gastrointestinal reactions

Reference answer: CCACBA

Summary of daily nursing knowledge exercises for the nurse qualification examination< /p>

1. Regarding the treatment of tetany with vitamin D, the correct statement is ( )

A. Calcium supplementation, anticonvulsance, and vitamin D supplementation

B. Supplement vitamin D, relieve convulsions, and supplement calcium

C. Supplement vitamin D, supplement calcium, and relieve convulsions

D. Replenish convulsions, supplement calcium, and supplement vitamin D

(Use questions from 2 to 6***)

Tang, female, 24 years old. I have been suffering from hyperthyroidism for 2 years, and my condition worsened after I stopped taking the medication 4 months into my pregnancy. Physical evaluation: blood pressure 180/140mmHg, pulse 130 beats/min, body temperature 39-40°C, sweating profusely, irritability, and mild cyanosis of the lips.

2. First consider what is most likely to happen to the patient ( ).

A. Relapse of hyperthyroidism

B. Hyperthyroid crisis

C. Hyperthyroid heart disease

D. Hyperthyroidism accompanied by infection

p>

E. Shock

3. The first choice drug for treatment at this time is ().

A. Propylthiouracil

B. Methylthiouracil

C. Carbimazole

D. Methionine Imidazole

E. Compound iodine

4. During the treatment process, the patient has an adverse reaction and needs to discontinue the drug. The adverse reaction should be ().

A. Gastrointestinal reaction

B. Neutrophils 1.5×109/L

C. Hepatomegaly

D. Dizziness and fatigue

E. Worsening of exophthalmos

5. The first-aid care measures provided by the nurse are wrong ().

A. Immediately place the patient in a dimly lit rescue room

B. Get into a semi-recumbent position and give oxygen immediately

C. Quickly establish intravenous access

D. Closely observe the changes in the condition and record them accurately

E. Physical cooling, and use aspirin if necessary

6. The patient's condition gradually stabilized after treatment. In preparation for discharge, the nurse's discharge instructions for this patient are inappropriate ().

A. Postpartum breastfeeding

B. Maintain a good mental state

C. Avoid stress

D. Pay attention to the rules of life, Avoid overexertion

E. High-protein and high-vitamin diet

Reference answers and analysis

1. Answer D. Analysis: Laryngeal spasm is prone to occur in convulsions, which is an emergency and must be dealt with first; calcium can control convulsions; vitamin D can promote calcium absorption, but before that, calcium must be supplemented.

2. Answer B. Analysis: This is an aggravation of the original hyperthyroidism and should be a hyperthyroid crisis.

3. Answer A. Analysis: Thioureas are the first choice for A risk, among which propylthiouracil is the first choice.

4. Answer B. Analysis: The most important adverse reactions of propylthiouracil are neutropenia and liver damage. The drug should be discontinued when the dose is less than 1.5×109/L.

5. Answer E. Analysis: Aspirin can bind to thyroid-binding globulin and release free thyroxine, making the condition worse.

6. Answer A. Analysis: Propylthiouracil can enter breast milk and may cause hypothyroidism in infants.